1. Time and Motion Study was propounded by
(A) Louis D. Brandies
(B) Frank B. Gilberth
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) Henry Gnatt
2. Which of the following is a process of communication?
(D) All the above
3. Hawthorne Experiment findings led to
(A) Behavioural Approach
(B) Systems Approach
(C) Human Relations Approach
(D) Scientific Management Approach
4. Which of the following is not a path in grapevine chain?
(B) Single strand
(D) Cluster Chair
5. When the chain of command is longer than the span of control, the resultant organization structure would be
(A) Linear structure
(B) Flat structure
(C) Tall structure
(D) Free-form Organization structure
6. In an organization, under line and staff the function of ‘staff’ is
7. Which one of the following is not the method of job evaluation?
(B) Forced Distribution
(D) Point Method
8. Under which of the following legislations a statutory machinery for grievance handling is given?
(A) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(B) The Factories Act, 1948
(C) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(D) The Trade Pensions Act, 1926
9. Arrange the following steps of disciplinary procedure in the order in which they are used:
(a) Dismissal and discharge
(b) Show-cause notice
(c) Domestic enquiry
(d) Serving of charge sheet
(e) Submission of the report
(A) b, d, c, e, a
(B) b, e, c, d, a
(C) c, d, b, e, a
(D) d, b, c, e, a
10. Outsourcing stands for
(A) Retrenching services of surplus employees
(B) Encouraging voluntary retirement
(C) Contracting out the work to other organisations
(D) Slowing down of production
11. HRD systems include
(A) Performance Appraisal
(B) Potential Appraisal and Development
(C) Feedback and Performance coaching
(D) All the above
12. QWL movement was spearheaded by
(A) C.A. Barlett and S. Ghoshal
(B) Eric Tryst, Fred Enery, Eina Thorsrud
(C) D. Harnett and L. Cummings
(D) Ronen Simcha and Oded Shankar
13. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Eric Berne i. Born to Win
b. Thomas A. Harris ii. Quality Circles in India
c. James and Dorothy Jongeward iii. I’am O.K – You’re O.K
d. S.R. Udpa iv. Transactional Analysis
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iv i ii iii
14. Arrange in sequence the five steps procedure for Behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS):www.netugc.in
a. Identify Performance Dimensions
b. Collect critical incidents
c. Rate the incidents
d. Re-classify the incidents
e. Develop the final instrument
(A) b, d, a, e, c
(B) d, b, a, e, c
(C) b, a, d, c, e
(D) b, d, e, a, c
15. Which one is not a part of effective organization’s career planning process?
(A) Assessment of Occupational and career choice
(B) Personal Assessment
(C) Annual Appraisal and Development Programme
(D) Incentive Management
16. The famous definition of ‘personality’ as “the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychological systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment” – is given by
(A) Theodore T. Herbert
(B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Gordon Allport
(D) James Watson
17. Arrange the following steps in OB Mod in their right sequence:
a. Identification of behavioural contingencies
b. Measurement of the behaviours
c. Identification of performance related behaviours
d. Evaluation of performance improvement
e. Development and implementation of intervention strategy
(A) a, c, b, e, d
(B) c, a, b, d, e
(C) a, d, c, b, e
(D) c, b, a, e, d
18. Match the following:
Theories of Motivation Propagators
a. Expectancy Theory i. J. Stacy Adams
b. ERG Theory ii. Hackman & Oldham
c. Equity Theory iii. Clayton Alderfer
d. Job Characteristics Model iv. Victor Vroom
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) iv ii i iii
19. When a sender manipulates information so that it will be seen more favourably by the receiver in communication, it is called
(A) Selective Perception
(B) Linguistic Trap
(D) Emotional Appeal
20. Leader-Member relations; task structure and position power are attributes of which leadership theory?
(A) Trait Theory
(B) Behavioural Theory
(C) Situational Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
21. Who has propounded the theory that “Industrial Conflict is a part of the broader social conflict between classes and used to explain fundamental historical process of change and development in human society”?
(A) Frank Tannenbaum
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Karl Marx
(D) G.D.H. Cole
22. In which year the two consultative machinery Indian Labour Conference and Standing Labour Committee were constituted in India?
23. Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
(A) Information sharing
(D) All the above
24. By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
25. The structure of I.L.O. includeswww.netugc.in
(A) an International Labour Conference
(B) a Governing Body
(C) an International Labour Office
(D) All the above
26. Who was the founder of the Madras Labour Union?
(A) Ansuya Ben Sarabhai
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) Sankarlal Banker
27. Who has defined that “a trade union means an association carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest (higher wages, better conditions of work)”?
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) G.D.H. Cole
(C) Robert F. Hoxie
(D) Frank Tannenbaum
28. Under which of the following legislations there is a provision called ‘protected workmen’?
(A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(B) Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
29. Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) Conciliation Officer
(B) Board of Conciliation
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Labour Court
30. Creation of a political fund by trade unions under the Trade Union Act is
(C) by donation from political parties
(D) No such provision in the Act
31. Who among the following mentioned the four major principles of labour legislations?
(A) Frank Tillayard
(C) R.K. Das
(D) P.L. Mallick
32. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of
(A) Regulative Labour Legislation
(B) Protective Labour Legislation
(C) Social Security Legislation
(D) Welfare Legislation
33. Which of the following common defences were not available to the employers in cases of compensation for accidents under the common law?
(A) Doctrine of Assumed Risk
(B) Doctrine of Contributory Negligence
(C) Doctrine of Common Employment and Fellow Servant’s responsibility
(D) Doctrine of Natural Risk
34. Which of the following is not a statutory welfare facility under the Factories Act, 1948?
(D) First-Aid Boxes
35. The condition of 70 days of employment in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of benefit has been made an eligibility condition for getting
(A) Maternity Benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Disablement benefit under the ESI Act
(C) Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act
(D) Sickness benefit under the ESI Act
36. Under which Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Public Utility Services have been listed out?
(A) 1st Schedule
(B) 2nd Schedule
(C) 3rd Schedule
(D) 4th Schedule
37. The minimum rate of subsistence allowance in case of suspension pending enquiry has been given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Industrial Employment
(D) None of the above, Act
38. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
(A) Basic Wage
(B) Dearness Allowance
39. Which of the following statements is not correct as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?www.netugc.in
(A) It is applicable to construction industry.
(B) It does not apply to employees in Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(C) Allocable surplus means 67% of the available surplus.
(D) Employee means any person including apprentice.
40. “No discrimination to be made while recruiting men and women workers” is given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Equal Remuneration Act
(C) Employment Exchanges
(Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act
(D) Minimum Wages Act
41. Which of the following is not an extra-mural welfare?
(A) Co-operative consumer facility
(B) Creche for child care
(C) Recreational club
(D) Health and Medical Services
42. “Workers are becoming conscious of their rights and privileges therefore it is prudent to appease the workers” is the philosophy of which theory of labour welfare?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Policing Theory
(C) Philanthropic Theory
(D) Paternalistic Theory
43. ‘Social Invasion of Work Place’ and long arm of job’ explain the logic behind which of the following welfare activities?
(A) Reducing accidents and promoting safety
(B) Reducing indebtedness through co-operatives
(C) Labour Community Development
(D) All the above
44. Assertion (A): Industrial accidents occur inter-alia due to fatigue.
Reason (R): Fatigue is the result of personal health condition of the worker as well as by overwork, monotony and boredom as part of work experience.
(A) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is right and the (R) rightly explains the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
45. Which of the following statements about welfare officer is not correct?
(A) Welfare Officer is statutory.
(B) The Qualifications and duties of Welfare Officer are prescribed.
(C) ‘Welfare Officer’ is a ‘Third Force’.
(D) Welfare Officer has to represent the employer in cases of industrial dispute.
46. The first Wage Board in India was set up in
47. Arrange the following in order of their amount in an ascending order:
a. Living Wage
b. Subsistence Wage
c. Fair Wage
d. Minimum Wage
(A) b, c, d, a
(B) c, d, b, a
(C) b, d, c, a
(D) d, a, c, b
48. Which of the following cannot be regarded as a method of State Regulation of Wages?
(A) Wage Boards
(B) A Statutory Minimum Wage
(C) Adjudication and arbitration awards
(D) Collective Bargaining
49. Which of the following is regarded as Iron Law of Wage?
(A) Marginal Productivity Theory
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Wage Fund Theory
(D) Residual Claimant Theory
50. Which of the following is not a type of unemployment?
(A) Frictional Unemployment
(B) Technological Unemployment
(C) Disguised Unemployment
(D) Migratory Unemployment