2013 June UGC NET Examination in Political Science, Paper II: Previous Years Solved Question Paper Along With Answer Keys





1. What constitutes the mean in Aristotle’s social structure?
(A) Wealthy class
(B) Poor citizen
(C) Middle class
(D) Artisan class
Answer: (C)

2. Whom did Machiavelli blame for the moral degradation of Italy?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Church
(C) The Aristocracy
(D) Corrupt People
Answer: (B)

3. For Hegel which one of the following is correct?
(A) Family is the thesis, Bourgeois society is the anti-thesis and the State represents synthesis.
(B) The rational is real and the real is rational.
(C) Contradictions are not obstacles preventing us reaching truth.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

4. Who among the following criticized Bentham’s Philosophy as “Pig Philosophy”?
(A) Leslie Stephen
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Carlyle
(D) J.S. Mill
Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following is correct so far as John Rawls’ writings are concerned?
(A) A theory of Justice
(B) Political Liberalism
(C) The Law of Peoples
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

6. Which one of the following Mao has not said?
(A) Political power grows out of barrel of gun.
(B) Three years of hard work: ten thousand years of happiness.
(C) Atom bombs is real tigers.
(D) A revolution is not a dinner party.
Answer: (C)

7. Which one among the following statements is true?
(A) Behaviouralism is based on Stimulus-Response paradigm.
(B) Post-behaviouralism consists of seven tenets.
(C) Post-behaviouralism wholly negates behaviouralism.
(D) There are no differences between behaviourism and behaviouralism.
Answer: (B)

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Karl Marx termed early socialists as Utopian socialists.
Reason (R): They attacked the capitalist system itself.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)

9. Identify the correct sequence of the Plato’s four components of virtue:
(i) Justice
(ii) Courage
(iii) Temperance
(iv) Wisdom
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Answer: (C)

10. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List – I                                     List – II
a. Savarkar                               i. Associated with a secret society “Lotus and Daggers.”
b. M.N. Roy                            ii. Author of the book A Plea for Reconstruction of Indian Polity
c. Aurobindo Ghose                 iii. Convicted in the Kanpur conspiracy case
d. Jayaprakash Narayan           iv. Hinduize all politics and militarize Hinduism
Code:
        a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iv iii
Answer: (A)





11. Notion of uneven development was a response to the 19th century ideas of
(A) Capitalism
(B) Evolution and gradualism
(C) Positivism
(D) Anarchismwww.netugc.in
Answer: (A)

12. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                     List – II
(Dependency Theorists)            (Books)
a. Samir Amin               i. Dependency and Development
b. A.G. Frank                           ii. Accumulation on a world scale
c. F. Henrique Cardoso            iii. Capitalism and under development in Latin America
d. Paul Swezey             iv. Monopoly Capital
        a b c d
(A) iv i iii ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) ii iii i iv
Answer: (D)

13. Who among the following is associated with Institutional Approach?
(A) James Bryce
(B) Merriam
(C) Arthur Bentley
(D) Lasswell
Answer: (A)

14. Who among the following challenged the idea of political development as a unilinear process?
(A) Shils
(B) Huntington
(C) Almond
(D) Halpren
Answer: (B)

15. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?
List – I                         List – II
(Thinkers)                     (Concepts)
i. Easton                       – Regulatory mechanisms
ii. Deutsch                    – Modernising oligarchy
iii. Shils                         – Structural differentiation
iv. Lucian Pye   – Negative Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) ii and iii
(B) i and ii
(C) i, iii and iv
(D) ii, iii and iv
Answer: (D)

16. What is ‘Cultural Dualism”?
(A) The existence of two religious cultures.
(B) Newly emerging nations have two languages.
(C) A small elite is modernized while the vast majority remains in rigid ascriptive patterns of tradition.
(D) It is separation of the sacred from the secular.
Answer: (C)

17. Identify the correct sequence of the following input functions of Almond’s Political System:
(i) Interest aggregation
(ii) Interest articulation
(iii) Political socialisation and recruitment
(iv) Political communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(B) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)

18. The classical theory of administration is also known as
(A) Locational theory
(B) Historical theory
(C) Mechanistic theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Answer: (C)

19. Pareto’s description of elites as ‘speculators’ and ‘rentiers’ resembles the characterisation of governing cliques of
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Marx
Answer: (D)

20. The difference between order and disorder is more important than the difference between communism and liberal democracy is advocated by
(A) Lipset
(B) Lijphart
(C) Dahl
(D) Huntington
Answer: (D)





21. Which of the following statements are not correct?
I. As per the provisions of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is both collectively and individually responsible to the Lok Sabha.
II. A motion expressing lack of confidence in an individual minister is not admissible.
III. A no-confidence motion must set out the grounds on which it is based.
IV. If a no-confidence motion is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers is bound to resign.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) I, II and III
(D) II and III
Answer: (B)

22. The Avadi Session of the Congress (1956) accepted the policy of
(A) Cooperative Farming
(B) Import Substitution
(C) Garibi Hatao
(D) Socialistic pattern of society
Answer: (D)

23. What were the main findings of the Union Government administrative committee headed by Home Secretary N.N. Vohra in 1993?www.netugc.in
(A) Electoral Reforms
(B) Minimum qualification for politicians
(C) Nexus between politicians, criminals and bureaucrats.
(D) Internal security priorities
Answer: (C)

24. Partha Chatterjee has commented that the latest phase of the globalization of capital will witness an emerging opposition between
(A) Modernity and Democracy
(B) Feudalism and Democracy
(C) Inclusion and Democracy
(D) Elitism and Mass cultures
Answer: (A)

25. The President can make a proclamation of Financial Emergency under Art. 360
(A) For the whole of India or any part of India
(B) For the whole of India except Nagaland, Tripura, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) For the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
(D) For the whole of India except Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (C)

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The secular ideology of the Indian State appears to be paradox in view of the deeply religious orientation of the Indian society.
Reason (R): India’s secularism was invented for integrating the multicultural plurality of the society into a common nation-state as well as for containing potentialities of the imperial ‘divide and rule’ and Muslim Leagues’ ‘two-nation’ theory in British India.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false.
Answer: (A)

27. Dharamsala model of Indian capitalism was propounded by
(A) Dandekar and Rath
(B) Arjun Sengupta
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Amartya Sen
Answer: (C)

28. The 1963 Kamraj Plan was initiated by Nehru
(A) To revive Congress party commitments
(B) To attract the youth to the party
(C) To plan and execute succession procedure in the party
(D) To plan gender parity in the party
Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following statements about the Central Vigilance Commissioner is not true?
(A) The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
(B) The post of Central Vigilance Commissioner is a statutory post.
(C) He holds office for a term of five years.
(D) He is empowered to exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI.
Answer: (C)

30. Which of the following statements are not true?
(i) The Election Commission of India has created a Special Election Expenditure Monitoring Division in the Commission.
(ii) The accounts of political parties are audited annually.
(iii) Paid news in connection with elections is an electoral offence.
(iv) Videography of the poll proceedings inside the polling stations is permissible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D)





31. Assertion (A): The arguments of C. Wright Mill’s power elites are based on the classical elitist framework.
Reason (R): Elitist formulation is not possible without reference to classical elitism.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)

32. The theory of “Prismatic Society” is based on
(A) Historical studies of public administration in different societies.
(B) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(C) Institutional comparison of public administration in developed countries.
(D) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries.
Answer: (D)

33. Job loading means
(A) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenges.
(B) Shifting of an employee from one job to another.
(C) Making the job more interesting.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)

34. Negative motivation is based on
(A) Anxiety
(B) Threat
(C) Money
(D) Fear
Answer: (D)

35. Simon was positively influenced by the ideas of
(A) L.D. White
(B) Terry
(C) Barnard
(D) Henry Fayol
Answer: (C)

36. Assertion (A): Classical theory of organisation is based on formal principles.
Reason (R): Classicists lacked behavioural analysis.
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false.
Answer: (B)

37. What is the methodology proposed by Herbert Simon?www.netugc.in
(A) Bounded Rationality
(B) Logical Positivism
(C) Decision making
(D) Satisfying
Answer: (B)

38. Who among the following thinkers rejected the principles of administration as myths and proverbs?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) W.F. Willoughby
(C) L.D. White
(D) Chester Bernard
Answer: (A)

39. The concept of the “zone of indifference” is associated with
(A) Power
(B) Decision making
(C) Authority
(D) Leadership
Answer: (C)

40. Name the scholar who analyzed leadership as “circular response”.
(A) Taylor
(B) Millet
(C) M.P. Follett
(D) C.I. Barnard
Answer: (C)





41. Non-state dimension of warfare is also called
(A) Westphalian warfare
(B) Post-westphalian warfare
(C) New war
(D) Pre-westphalian warfare
Answer: (B)

42. Tehran Declaration of 1 December 1943 drew a plan for
(A) Trusteeship
(B) New-membership
(C) Peace-keeping
(D) Conflict resolution
Answer: (C)

43. Who coined the term “Functionalist theory of Integration”?
(A) David Mittarany
(B) Ernst Haas
(C) Joseph Nye
(D) Andrew Linklater
Answer: (A)

44. The CEPA (Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement) was officially endorsed in October 2010 between
(A) India and Japan
(B) India and China
(C) India and Russia
(D) India and South Korea
Answer: (A)

45. What is the correct sequence of Morton Kaplan’s models of systems analysis?
(i) Balance of Power
(ii) Loose Bipolarity
(iii) Tight Bipolarity
(iv) Universal International System
Codes:
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (D)

46. Who wrote the book “Stable Peace”?
(A) Johan Galtung
(B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) Kenneth Boulding
(D) Peter Wallerstein
Answer: (C)

47. Security Council Resolution No. 1441 of Nov 2002 deals with
(A) U.N. involvement in Somalia.
(B) Enforced the no fly zone in Bosnia
(C) Sanctioned intervention at the end of the Gulf War to protect the Kurds in Northern Iraq.
(D) Resolution on Iraq, which threatened serious consequences, if Saddam Hussain failed to reveal his weapons of mass destruction toteam of U.N. Inspectors.
Answer: (D)

48. Who enunciated International society theory as a combination of three schools of thought – Realism, Rationalism and Revolutionism?www.netugc.in
(A) Martin Wight
(B) Kenneth Waltz
(C) Hedley Bull
(D) Raymond Aron
Answer: (A)

49. Assertion (A): The decisions of the Security Council are binding, and must only be passed by the majority of nine out of the 15 members, as well as each of the five permanent members.
Reason (R): These five permanent members have veto power over all Security Council decisions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following are parts of Morganthau’s realist principle?
(i) Politics is rooted in a permanent and unchanging human nature.
(ii) Self-interest is a basic fact of the human condition.
(iii) Coercion is only part of foreign policy.
(iv) National interest defined in terms of power.
Codes:
(A) All are correct.
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (i), (iii) and (ii) are correct.
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: (B)